SOLUTION TO PROBLEM 6



As a small step toward simplifying things, let

\begin{displaymath}\frac{1}{a-b}=x,\qquad \frac{1}{b-c}=y,\qquad \frac{1}{c-a}=z.\end{displaymath}

Then

\begin{displaymath}\frac{1}{x}=a-b,\qquad \frac{1}{y}=b-c,\qquad \frac{1}{z}=c-a,\end{displaymath}

and it is pretty obvious that

\begin{displaymath}\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}=0.\end{displaymath}

Clearing of fractions gives yz+zx+xy=0. Now, the expression we are concerned about is

x2+y2+z2,

which, when mentioned in the same breath with xy+yz+zx, can't help but bring to mind the basic expansion

(x+y+z)2=x2+y2+z2+2(xy+yz+zx).

Since xy+yz+zx=0, this gives

x2+y2+z2=(x+y+z)2,

a perfect square!



Questions and/or comments should be directed to Judy Downey or Griff Elder


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Last modified:   Fri Oct 5 08:35:05 CDT 2001